DP in Exo/Meso/Eso, Uncategorized May 12, 2022May 12, 2022 23 Words Chick.com: Is 1 John 5:7 not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the KJV? Source: Chick.com: Is 1 John 5:7 not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the KJV? Share this:TwitterFacebookEmailPrintLinkedInRedditTelegramLike this:Like Loading...
What is this world without a further Divine purpose in it all? W. Whitman 