DP in Exo/Meso/Eso, Uncategorized May 12, 2022May 12, 2022 23 Words Chick.com: Is 1 John 5:7 not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the KJV? Source: Chick.com: Is 1 John 5:7 not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the KJV? Share this: Click to share on X (Opens in new window) X Click to share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Click to email a link to a friend (Opens in new window) Email Click to print (Opens in new window) Print Click to share on LinkedIn (Opens in new window) LinkedIn Click to share on Reddit (Opens in new window) Reddit Click to share on Telegram (Opens in new window) Telegram Like Loading...
What is this world without a further Divine purpose in it all? W. Whitman 